You said: "the idea here is that all men are born dead in their spirit...", so you are stating that when Peter was saying "Him, who is ready to judge the living and the dead", he meant the spiritual sense of the word ("dead in spirit"), rather than the physical sense ("physically dead"). 1 Peter Thus âsoberâ is the opposite of âlasciviousnessâ (1 Peter 4:3). My interpretation of 1 Peter 4:6 is that christians who have died were preached to while physically alive on earth and they believed and received Christ before dying physically. How is there a McDonalds in Weathering with You? There is a connection between the word in the flesh, 1 Peter 4:1, and in the flesh, 1 Peter 4:2. 6 For, for this cause was the gospel preached also to the dead: that they might be judged indeed according to men, in the flesh; but may live according to God, in the Spirit. The judgment is imminent because all necessary preliminaries have been accomplished. It only takes a minute to sign up. of Christ. It is not bad hermeneutics to say that Jesus was using "dead" in both the spiritual sense and the physical sense" - In case of Matt 8:22 the very phrase "let the dead bury the dead" and its context give us a very strong basis to interpret the first "dead" in a spiritual sense (as physically dead people can't perform an act of burying) and the second "dead" in physical (it is highly unlikely that ↙, 2) the disciple was going to bury his father only because of his father's poor spiritual condition and not because of his poor physical state). The Greek word translated as "deeply," "earnestly," or "fervently" is ektenē, used to describe the muscles of an athlete straining to win a ⦠The opposite duties to the sins in 1 Peter 4:3 are here inculcated. Good hermeneutics would be not to attach two different meanings to two same words used by the same author in the same epistle. 5 Who shall render account to him, who is ready to judge the living and the dead. 1 Peter 4:1-6 Ecce Homo A. Rowland, LL. 1 Peter 3:4 But [let it be] the hidden man of the heart, in that which is not corruptible, [even the ornament] of a meek and quiet spirit, which is in the sight of God of great price. However, in Russian Synodal Version of the Bible, I found this rendering of the same verse: For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are This is a truly remarkable Greek - English Interlinear Bible of the New Testament from Biblos, which will be a total blessing to anyone interested in a deeper study of the Greek New Testament. The indicative mood indicates certainty ("was the gospel preached"), and the subjunctive mood indicates possibility ("they might be judged") and ("may live"). site design / logo © 2021 Stack Exchange Inc; user contributions licensed under cc by-sa. For 33 years, he served as pastor of Bethlehem Baptist . However, phrases like "He will judge the living and the dead" or "He is the judge of the living and the dead" are quite common in the Scripture - they are almost like slang in koine - and they always refer to physical death. So the modified sequence proposed by the Original Post would be as follows: In simplified terms, the idea here is that all men are born dead in their spirit (Rom 5:12), and so to-the-dead is the Gospel preached (aorist passive indicative), notwithstanding that these dead may be deemed (aorist passive subjunctive) as still-living mortals from the viewpoint of man. The second "dead" can also be interpreted in both senses. rev 2021.1.8.38287, The best answers are voted up and rise to the top, Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange works best with JavaScript enabled, Start here for a quick overview of the site, Detailed answers to any questions you might have, Discuss the workings and policies of this site, Learn more about Stack Overflow the company, Learn more about hiring developers or posting ads with us. One day they willlive with God in heaven and share Godâs *glory. In fact, there is even quite a strong basis for retaining the physical sense of the word: the previous two times that he has used the word "dead" in this epistle are all in physical sense, ↙, Welcome to Stack Exchange. The desired end state is that these spiritually dead may live (aorist active subjunctive) according to God in spirit, so as to become spiritually alive and thus become "the living.". To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers. So, does the grammatical form of this verb in the original text make it clear whether the judgment took place before the preaching of the gospel or afterwards? REFERENCE: What is the meaning of the genitive absolute in Hebrews 4:3? In respective to these verbs and tenses, the literal sense of the Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition provides the best translation. Stuttgart: Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft, 794. ye are â Greek, âye have becomeâ: âchildrenâ of Abraham and Sara by faith, whereas ye were Gentile aliens from the covenant. 1 Peter: Trials, Holy Living & The Lord's Coming Click chart to enlarge Chart from Jensen's Survey of the NT - used by permission Another Chart from Charles Swindoll - click chart on right side 1 Peter 4:1 Therefore, since Christ has suffered in the flesh, arm yourselves also with the same purpose, because he who has suffered in the flesh has ceased from sin, (NASB: Lockman) watch â Greek, âbe soberly vigilantâ; not ⦠[NOTE: Arland et al. @brilliant - what did Jesus mean when he said to the disciples "let the dead bury the dead" (Matt 8:22)? Interpretation of the dead ones in 1 Peter 4:6? afraid with any amazement â Greek, âfluttering alarm,â âconsternation.â Act well, and be not thrown into sudden panic, as weak females are apt to be, by any opposition from without. 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